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Overcoming Bias Commenter's avatar

I read it again and I still don't understand. Maybe I should clarify my question.

I understand why price manipulators fail to make the market look the way they want, and instead make it more accurate.

What I don't understand is why insider traders, with access to true relevant information that the other traders cannot get merely by further research, aren't "neutralized" by the same mechanism.

That is: Assume a shallow consideration of a given question suggests a probability of 60%, more extensive research turns up data implying a more accurate 65%, and one insider has special data implying an even more accurate 64%. Further assume that the other traders besides the insider can't turn up the insider's special data with even extensive research -- the only way they can learn what the insider knows, if at all, is through the insider.

As I understand the article, if a manipulator tries to mess with the market, or if the insider tries to profit from the special data, in either case the market will settle on 65%.

What can the insider do to prove they're not a manipulator masquerading as an insider? If nothing, then how can the insider move the market to 64% when the manipulator can't move it to 66%?

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Robin Hanson's avatar

Read the post again. Ex post, it doesn't; ex ante, it does.

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